2) Aristotle discusses several specific virtues and theiraccompanying vices in his Nicomachean Ethics, but he also notesthat the possible virtues and vices associated with “shame†aredif-ferent, and that there isn’t, strictly speaking, a virtuousmean for shame. How is it that “shame†seems as if it can beanalyzed in terms of virtue and vice, just as “fear†or “desireâ€are? Why would Aristotle say that despite this, there is novirtuous state for shame?
