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  3. 3. a 23-year-old woman presents to her gp with men

3. A 23-year-old woman presents to her GP with menorrhagia. The GP requests a coagulation screen...

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Medical Sciences

  • 3. A 23-year-old woman presents to her GP withmenorrhagia. The GP requests a coagulation screen and the resultsof this are shown below:
  • The prolonged PT and APTT correct in a 50:50 mix withnormal plasma.

Test

Patient

Reference Range

PT

34s

11-14s

APTT

82s

23-35s

Fibrinogen (Clauss)

2.6g/L

1.5-4.0g/L

Thrombin Time

13s

10-13s

1. What questions might you ask this lady that would beof relevance?

2. How would you proceed with the investigation of thispatient?

A 45-year-old man presents with an extensive above kneeDVT extending into the iliac veins. He is otherwise well with nopast medical history of note.

His pre-anticoagulation screen shows:

Test

Patient

Reference Range

PT

14s

11-14s

APTT

>120s

23-35s

Fibrinogen (Clauss)

3.2g/L

1.5-4.0g/L

Thrombin Time

13s

10-13s

  • 1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Factor XII:C <1 IU/dl.
  • Do you think the FXII deficiency is clinicallyimportant?

If you elect to treat this patient with unfractionatedheparin how would you monitor this?

Answer & Explanation Solved by verified expert
4.1 Ratings (718 Votes)
QuestionA 23yearold woman presents to her GPwith menorrhagia The GP requests a coagulation screen and theresults of this are shown belowThe prolonged PT and APTT correct in a 5050 mix with normalplasmaTestPatientReference RangePT34s1114sAPTT82s2335sFibrinogen Clauss26gL1540gLThrombin    See Answer
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