Let a,b be any relatively prime positive numbers. (The case b =
1 is allowed). We...
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Let a,b be any relatively prime positive numbers. (The case b =1 is allowed). We have the rational number a/b. Without appealingto anything but Euclid’s lemma (no use of ?(p, m)) show that if pis prime then p does not equal (a/b)^2. That is ?p is irrational.Hint: if p = (a/b)^2 then we have p(b^2) = a^2. Derive p|b and thenshow p|a which is a contradiction.
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