Many mortgage companies have included in their mortgagecontracts the right to non-judicial foreclosure, meaning that if amortgagee becomes delinquent under the terms of the note, themortgage company can foreclose on the property without having tosue the mortgagee and obtain a judgment for judicial foreclosure.Do you think this nonjudicial foreclosure provision is fair? Is itgood for the economy/business? Should it be allowed? Why or whynot? Please remember to comment upon at least two other students'posts in addition to posting your own comment.
