Prove that for all integers n ? 2, the number p(n) ? p(n ? 1)...

80.2K

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Question

Advance Math

Prove that for all integers n ? 2, the number p(n) ? p(n ? 1) isequal
to the number of partitions of n in which the two largest partsare
equal.

Answer & Explanation Solved by verified expert

3.8 Ratings (437 Votes)

Answer Let beconstruct a bijection from the set of all partitions of n1 onto the set of all partitions of n that have at least one part equal to one The bijection is just simply adding a part equal to 1 to the end of each partition of n1 If the partition has its two largest sets with equal size send that partition to the See Answer

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Prove that for all integers n ? 2, the number p(n) ? p(n ? 1)...

80.2K

Verified Solution

Question

Advance Math

Prove that for all integers n ? 2, the number p(n) ? p(n ? 1) isequal
to the number of partitions of n in which the two largest partsare
equal.

Answer & Explanation Solved by verified expert

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Prove that for all integers n ? 2, the number p(n) ? p(n ? 1)...

80.2K

Verified Solution

Question

Advance Math

Prove that for all integers n ? 2, the number p(n) ? p(n ? 1) isequalto the number of partitions of n in which the two largest partsareequal.

Answer & Explanation Solved by verified expert

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Other questions asked by students

Prove that for all integers n ? 2, the number p(n) ? p(n ? 1) isequal
to the number of partitions of n in which the two largest partsare
equal.